GENERAL PSYCHOLOGY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
1. In its early years, psychology focused on the study of _____, but from the 1920s into the
1960s, American psychologists emphasized the study of ____.
A. environmental influences; hereditary influences
B. maladaptive behavior; adaptive behavior
C. unconscious motives; conscious thoughts and feelings
D. mental life; observable behavior
2. The young science of psychology developed from the more established fields of
philosophy and
A. economics
B. biology
C. geography
D. sociology
3. Janna has low self-esteem because she is often teased for being overweight. Appreciating
the complexity of Janna’s difficulties requires
A. introspection
B. psychoanalysis
C. massed practice
D. a biopsychosocial approach
4. Professor Crisman believes that most women prefer tall and physically strong partners
because this preference promoted the survival of our ancestors’ genes. This viewpoint best
illustrates the __ perspective.
A. social-cultural
B. cognitive
C. evolutionary
D. psychodynamic
5. Professor Lopez believes that severe depression results primarily from an imbalanced diet
and abnormal brain chemistry. Professor Lopez favors a ___ perspective on depression.
A. neuroscience
B. psychodynamic
C. behavior genetics
D. cognitive
6. Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more heavily influenced by their
biology or by their home environments are most directly relevant to the debate regarding
A. structuralism vs. functionalism
B. evolution vs. natural selection
C. observation vs. introspection
D. nature vs. nurture
7. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of
A. conscious and unconscious mental activity
B. observable responses to the environment
C. behavior and mental processes
D. maladaptive and adaptive behaviors
8. Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people’s
A. childhood memories
B. genetic predispositions
C. unconscious thought processes
D. potential for healthy growth
9. The first psychology laboratory was established by ___ in the year ____.
A. Wundt; 1879
B. James; 1890
C. Freud; 1900
D. Watson; 1913
10. Lissette wonders whether personality differences between her African-American and
Asian-American friends result from biological or cultural influences. In this instance,
Lissette is primarily concerned with the relative contributions of
A. neuroscience and cognition
B. nature and nurture
C. behavior and mental processes
D. conscious and unconscious thoughts
11. The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on
A. natural selection
B. brain chemistry
C. unconscious conflicts
D. learned behaviors
12. The perception that psychological research findings merely verify our commonsense
understanding is most clearly facilitated by
A. critical thinking
B. hindsight bias
C. the scientific attitude
D. curious skepticism
13. Psychologists study animals because
A. animal behavior is just as complex as human behavior
B. experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical
C. the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines
D. similar processes often underlie animal and human behavior
14. The enduring traditions, attitudes, and behaviors shared by a large group of people
constitutes their
A. culture
B. normal curve
C. wording effects
D. schemas
15. Three key attitudes of scientific inquiry are
A. pride, enthusiasm, and ingenuity
B. ingenuity, practicality, and certainty
C. certainty, creativity, and curiosity
D. curiosity, skepticism, and humility
16. Psychological differences between the genders are
A. of little interest to contemporary psychologists
B. simply reflections of biological differences between the sexes
C. no longer evident in contemporary Western societies
D. far outweighed by gender similarities
17. A questioning attitude regarding psychologists’ assumptions and hidden values best
illustrates
A. experimentation
B. critical thinking
C. hindsight bias
D. overconfidence
18. The first major issue that emerges in debates over experimenting on animals centers
around the
A. usefulness of studying biological processes in animals
B. ethics of placing the well-being of humans above that of animals
C. obligation to treat information about individual animals with confidentiality
D. needs to obtain the informed consent of animals used in research
19. To understand the unusual behavior of an adult client, a clinical psychologist carefully
investigates the client’s current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and
educational history. Which research method has the psychologist used?
A. the survey
B. the case study
C. experimentation
D. naturalistic observation
20. Surveys indicate that people are much less likely to support “welfare” than “aid to the
needy.” These somewhat paradoxical survey results best illustrate the importance of
A. random sampling
B. wording effects
C. the placebo effect
D. naturalistic observation
21. Which of the following correlation coefficients expresses the weakest degree of
relationship between two variables?
A. -0.12
B. -0.99
C. +0.25
D. -0.50
22. Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two variables
A. vary together
B. are random samples
C. influence each other
D. show statistically significant differences
23. If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than
poor people are, this would indicate that wealth and marital satisfaction are
A. causally related
B. negatively correlated
C. independent variables
D. positively correlated
24. A negative correlation between degree of wealth and likelihood of suffering from a
psychological disorder would indicate that
A. poverty makes people more vulnerable to psychological disorders
B. people who are poor are more likely to have a psychological disorder than are wealthy
people
C. psychological disorders usually prevent people from accumulating wealth
D. all of these statements are true
25. Suppose that people who watch a lot of violence on TV are also particularly likely to
behave aggressively. This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching
violence influences aggressive behavior because
A. random sequences often don’t look random
B. correlation does not prove causation
C. sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations
D. events often seem more probable in hindsight
26. Which of the following methods is most helpful for revealing cause-effect relationships?
A. the survey
B. the experiment
C. correlational research
D. naturalistic observation
27. Both the researchers and the participants in a memory study are ignorant about which
participants have actually received a potentially memory-enhancing drug and which have
received a placebo. This investigation involves the use of
A. naturalistic observation
B. random sampling
C. the double-blind procedure
D. replication
28. To assess the impact of test difficulty on persistence of effort, researchers plan to give one
group of children relatively easy tests and another group more difficult tests. To reduce the
chance that the children in one group are more intelligent than those in the other group, the
researchers should make use of
A. random assignment
B. the double-blind procedure
C. naturalistic observation
D. operational definitions
29. To assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either
insulted or complimented students about their physical appearance just before they went
on a blind date. In this research the dependent variable was
A. insults or compliments
B. physical appearance
C. interpersonal attraction
D. feelings of self-esteem
30. In an experimental study of the effects of anxiety on self-esteem, anxiety would be the ___
variable.
A. experimental
B. dependent
C. correlational
D. independent
31. Lacking any exposure to language before adolescence, a person will never master any
language due to the ___ of unemployed neural connections.
A. shaping
B. sculpting
C. pruning
D. temperament
32. Norms are best described as
A. the expression of group identity
B. a person’s characteristic emotional reactivity
C. rules for socially acceptable behavior
D. buffer zones we like to maintain between ourselves and others
33. Professor Shankar believes that her students’ most important personal characteristics are
those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude best
illustrates one of the consequences of
A. individualism
B. gender typing
C. collectivism
D. temperament
34. When Mr. Thompson lived overseas for a year, he was very surprised at how much respect
he received from people simply because he was an older person. His sense of surprise
suggests that he had NOT previously lived in a culture characterized by
A. social diversity
B. collectivism
C. extraversion
D. individualism
35. Men and women are most likely to differ in their
A. happiness
B. intelligence
C. self-esteem
D. aggressiveness
36. When teased by his older sister, 9-year-old Waldo does not cry because he has learned that
boys are not supposed to cry. Waldo’s behavior best illustrates the importance of
A. temperament
B. gender roles
C. testosterone
D. collectivism
37. Gender roles refers to
A. one’s biological sex
B. a sense of being male or female
C. a set of expected behaviors for males and females
D. a sense of being homosexual or heterosexual
38. Depending on environmental conditions, specific genes can be either
A. proteins or chemicals
B. active or inactive
C. identical or fraternal
D. structured or unstructured
39. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are much more similar in
A. extraversion
B. neuroticism
C. temperament
D. all of these characteristics
40. Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are ____ similar in neuroticism and ___
similar in risk of divorcing.
A. more; less
B. less; more
C. more; more
D. less; less
41. Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing
A. identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised apart
B. identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together
C. identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together
D. identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart
42. The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children’s ___ than on their
____.
A. temperament; political attitudes
B. extraversion; table manners
C. religious beliefs; personality traits
D. gender identity; gender schemas
43. The personalities of adopted children
A. are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families
B. are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings
C. are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents
D. are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the
personalities of their biological parents
44. Research more clearly suggests that personality traits are more strongly influenced by
A. genes than by home environment
B. home environment than by genes
C. genes than by peers
D. home environment than by peers
45. The labels “easy,” “difficult,” and “slow-to-warm-up” are used to refer to differences in an
infant’s
A. genome
B. fitness
C. temperament
D. adaptability
46. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that
A. more people are biologically predisposed to fear guns than to fear snakes
B. children are more likely to be valued by their biological fathers than by their
stepfathers
C. people are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically
dissimilar to themselves
D. genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships
47. Compared with women, men are ___ likely to feel comfortable about having casual sex
with different partners and ___ likely to cite affection as a reason for their first sexual
intercourse.
A. less; more
B. more; less
C. less; less
D. more; more
48. The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on
A. imagery
B. retrieval
C. visual coding
D. memory
49. The retention of encoded information over time refers to
A. effortful processing
B. retrieval
C. rehearsal
D. storage
50. The process of getting information out of memory is called
A. encoding
B. relearning
C. retrieval
D. rehearsal
51. The process of encoding refers to
A. the persistence of learning over time
B. the recall of information previously learned
C. getting information into memory
D. a clear memory of an emotionally significant event
52. Storage is to encoding as ____ is to ____.
A. active processing; passive processing
B. imagery; attentiveness
C. rehearsal; retrieval
D. retention; acquisition
53. Some information in our fleeting ____ is encoded into short-term memory.
A. working memory
B. sensory memory
C. rehearsal memory
D. long-term memory
54. The integration of new incoming information with knowledge retrieved from long-term
memory involves the activity of
A. sensory memory
B. auditory memory
C. visual encoding
D. working memory
55. Your consciously activated but limited-capacity memory is called ____ memory
A. short-term
B. auditory
C. visual-spatial
D. sensory
56. The three steps in memory information processing are
A. input, processing, output
B. input, storage, output
C. input, storage, retrieval
D. encoding, storage, retrieval
57. The difficulty of recalling the melody of a familiar song while listening to a different song
best illustrates the limited capacity of
A. recognition memory
B. working memory
C. long-term memory
D. sensory memory
58. Automatic processing and effortful processing are two types of
A. encoding
B. retrieval
C. rehearsal
D. storage
59. During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term serial
position effect. Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared
on the ninth line of a left-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental
information is best explained in terms of
A. automatic processing
B. the spacing effect
C. the peg-word system
D. the serial-position effect
60. Automatic processing occurs without
A. acoustic memory
B. semantic encoding
C. conscious awareness
D. visual imagery
61. Ebbinghaus’ use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that
A. the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning
B. what is learned in one mood is most easily retrieved in that same mood
C. information that is automatically processed is rarely forgotten
D. our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited
62. One day after Usha hears her mother’s list of grocery items, Usha is least likely to
remember the items
A. at the beginning and end
B. at the end
C. at the beginning
D. in the middle
63. The conscious repetition of information to maintain it in memory is called
A. automatic processing
B. rehearsal
C. mnemonics
D. chunking
64. Students who restudy course material at the end of a semester to pass a comprehensive
final are especially likely to demonstrate long-term retention of the course material. This
best illustrates the value of
A. visual encoding
B. the serial position effect
C. chunking
D. the spacing effect
65. Chess masters can recall the exact positions of most pieces after a brief glance at the game
board. This ability is best explained in terms of
A. the spacing effect
B. chunking
C. the serial position effect
D. long-term memory
66. The extensive rehearsal necessary to encode nonsense syllables best illustrates
A. the spacing effect
B. chunking
C. the serial position effect
D. effortful processing
67. A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli is called ___ memory.
A. echoic
B. implicit
C. iconic
D. flashbulb
68. “The Magical Number Seven, plus or minus two” refers to the storage capacity of ___
memory.
A. short-term
B. explicit
C. flashbulb
D. implicit
69. What type of memory has an essentially unlimited capacity?.
A. echoic
B. short-term
C. long-term
D. iconic
70. Joshua vividly recalls his feelings and what he was doing at the exact moment when he
heard of his grandfather’s unexpected death. This best illustrates
A. flashbulb
B. implicit
C. echoic
D. long-term
71. Remembering how to solve a jigsaw puzzle without any conscious recollection that you
can do so best illustrates ___ memory.
A. explicit
B. flashbulb
C. implicit
D. sensory
72. After having a stroke, Aaron has great difficulty recalling any of his subsequent life
experiences. He is most likely suffering from
A. long-term potentiation
B. spatial mnemonics
C. retrieval failure
D. amnesia
73. Which memory test would most effectively reveal that Mr. Quintano, at age 80, still
remembers many of his high school classmates?
A. recall
B. recognition
C. rehearsal
D. reconstruction
74. What an eyewitness to an auto accident is asked to describe what happened, which test of
memory is being used?
A. recognition
B. rehearsal
C. recall
D. relearning
75. Watching a TV soap opera involved marital conflict and divorce led Andrea to recall
several instances in which her husband had mistreated her. The effect of the TV program
on Andrea’s recall provides an example of
A. the context effect
B. mnemonics
C. associations
D. priming
76. When 80-year-old Ida looked at her old wedding pictures, she was flooded with vivid
memories of her parents, her husband, and the early years of her marriage. The picures
served as powerful
A. encoding devices
B. iconic memories
C. sensory memories
D. retrieval cues
77. After his last drinking spree, Fakim hid a half-empty liquor bottle. He couldn’t remember
where he hid it until he started drinking again. Fakim’s pattern of recall best illustrates
A. priming
B. mnemonics
C. encoding effects
D. state-dependent memory
78. In an effort to remember the name of the classmate who sat behind her in fifth grade,
Martina mentally recited the names of other classmates who sat near her. Martina’s effort
to refresh her memory by activating related associations is an example of
A. retrieval cues
B. déjà vu
C. encoding
D. relearning
79. When Tony is in a bad mood, he interprets his parents’ comments as criticisms. When he’s
in a good mood, he interprets the same types of parental comments as helpful suggestions.
This best illustrates that our emotional states influence the process of
A. priming
B. encoding
C. recognition
D. retrieval
80. Which of the following is NOT a measure of retention?
A. recall
B. recognition
C. relearning
D. retrieval
81. The famous Ebbinghaus forgetting curve indicates that how well we remember
information depends on
A. how long ago we learned that information
B. the nature of our mood during encoding and retrieval
C. whether the information is part of our implicit or explicit memory
D. whether the information was acoustically or visually encoded
82. Among contemporary memory researchers, increasing numbers think that ____ rarely, if
ever, occurs.
A. proactive interference
B. automatic processing
C. source amnesia
D. repression
83. People with vivid imaginations are more likely than others to experience a(n)
A. long-term memory
B. false memory
C. working memory
D. sensory memory
84. Research reports of repression and recovered memories indicate that
A. people rarely recall memories of long-forgotten events
B. most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded in long-term memory
C. only those memories recovered with the help of a professional psychotherapist are
likely to be reliable
D. extremely stressful life experiences are especially likely to be well remembered
85. For you to experience the pain of a sprained ankle, ___ must first relay incoming pain
messages from your ankle to your spinal cord.
A. the parasympathetic nervous system
B. interneurons
C. motor neurons
D. sensory neurons
86. Dendrites are branching extensions of
A. neurotransmitters
B. endorphins
C. neurons
D. glutamate
87. The minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse is called the
A. reflex
B. threshold
C. synapse
D. action potential
88. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the
intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron’s reaction is
A. inhibited by the myelin sheath
B. delayed by the refractory period
C. an all-or-none response
D. dependent on neurotransmitter molecules
89. Reuptake refers to the
A. movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap
B. release of hormones into the bloodstream
C. inflow of positively charged ions through an axon membrane
D. reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron
90. Which division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its
energy in stressful situations?
A. the motor nervous system
B. the sympathetic nervous system
C. the somatic nervous system
D. the central nervous system
91. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A. autonomic nervous system
B. endocrine system
C. parasympathetic nervous system
D. somatic nervous system
92. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A. thalamus
B. amygdala
C. medulla
D. cerebellum
93. After Kato’s serious motorcycle accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum.
Kato is most likely to have difficulty
A. reading printed words
B. understanding what others are saying
C. tasting the flavors of foods
D. playing his guitar
94. Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential role
in the processing of new memories?
A. hypothalamus
B. thalamus
C. hippocampus
D. medulla
95. The occipital lobes are to ____ as the temporal lobes are to _____.
A. hearing; sensing movement
B. seeing; sensing touch
C. seeing; hearing
D. speaking; hearing
96. The most extensive regions of the brain, which enable learning and memory, are called the
A. sensory cortex
B. medulla
C. cerebellum
D. association areas
97. The capacity of one brain area to take over the functions of another damaged brain area is
known as
A. lateralization
B. phrenology
C. hemispherectomy
D. plasticity
98. Learning involves
A. the ability to think abstractly
B. a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experiences
C. the development of pro-social behavior
D. a reduction in extrinsic behavior
99. The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by
A. Watson
B. Skinner
C. Raynor
D. Pavlov
100. In Pavlov’s experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the US was
A. a tone
B. salivation to the sound of a tone
C. the presentation of food in the dog’s mouth
D. salivation to the food in the mouth
101. Extinction occurs when a ____ is no longer paired with a ____.
A. UR; CR
B. CS; UR
C. US; UR
D. CS; US
102. John B. Watson believed that psychology should be the science of
A. observable behavior
B. cognitive processes
C. genetic predispositions
D. all of these factors
103. Voluntary behaviors that produce rewarding or punishing consequences are called
A. respondent behaviors
B. unconditioned responses
C. operant behaviors
D. conditioned responses
104. B. F. Skinner’s work elaborated what E.L. Thorndike had called
A. shaping
B. observational learning
C. the law of effect
D. latent learning
105. An event that increases the frequency of the behavior that it follows is a(n)
A. conditioned stimulus
B. unconditioned stimulus
C. reinforcer
D. operant behavior
106. Any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n)
A. conditioned stimulus
B. unconditioned stimulus
C. positive reinforcer
D. negative reinforcer
107. Paul and Michael sell magazine subscriptions by telephone. Paul is paid $1.00 for every
five calls he makes, while Michael is paid $1.00 for every subscription he sells, regardless
of the number of calls he makes. Paul’s telephoning is reinforced on a ___ schedule,
whereas Michael’s is reinforced on a ____ schedule.
A. variable-ratio; fixed-ratio
B. fixed-ratio; variable-ratio
C. fixed-ratio; variable-interval
D. fixed-interval; variable-ratio
108. Jeremy wears his baseball cap backward because he noticed his older brother does so.
This illustrates the importance of
A. respondent behavior
B. immediate reinforcement
C. modeling
D. shaping
109. We find it harder to frown when viewing a smile than when viewing a frown. This can
most clearly be attributed to
A. partial reinforcement
B. spontaneous recovery
C. mirror neurons
D. cognitive maps
110. Who highlighted the importance of observational learning?
A. Watson
B. Bandura
C. Skinner
D. Pavlov
111. Correlational studies show that prolonged viewing of televised violence ___ increased
rates of violent behavior.
A. inhibits
B. causes
C. is unrelated to
D. predicts
112. Fritz Heider concluded that people tend to attribute others’ behavior either to their
A. heredity or their environment
B. biological motives or their psychological motives
C. thoughts or their emotions
D. dispositions or their situations
113. The fundamental attribution error refers to our tendency to underestimate the impact of
____ and to overestimate the impact of ___ in explaining the behavior of others.
A. central persuasion; peripheral persuasion
B. peripheral persuasion; central persuasion
C. personal dispositions; situational influences
D. situational influences; personal dispositions
114. Before she gave a class presentation favoring gun control legislation, Wanda opposed it.
Her present attitude favoring such legislation can best be explained by
A. attribution theory
B. cognitive dissonance theory
C. reward theory
D. evolutionary psychology
115. Philip Zimbardo devised a simulated prison and randomly assigned college students to
serve as prisoners or guards. This experiment best illustrated the impact of
A. team membership on social behavior
B. self-disclosure on cooperation
C. frustration on aggressive behavior
D. role-playing on attitudes
116. The discomfort we feel when two thoughts are inconsistent is called
A. cognitive dissonance
B. prejudice
C. antisocial reaction
D. the fundamental attribution error
117. When a salesperson visits your home and asks you to try a free sample of a cleaning
fluid, you agree. When he returns the following week and asks you to purchase an
assortment of expensive cleaning products, you make the purchase. The salesperson
appears to have made effective use of
A. the fundamental attribution error
B. role-playing
C. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon
D. cognitive dissonance
118. Adjusting one’s behavior or thinking toward a group standard is called
A. mood linkage
B. social facilitation
C. social loafing
D. conformity
119. Participants in the Milgram obedience studies were ordered to
A. play the role of the prison guards
B. write an essay supporting a position they didn’t believe in
C. deliver electric shocks to a learner for giving incorrect answers
D. participate in a team tug-of-war by pulling on a rope as hard as they could
120. According to Milgram, the most fundamental lesson to be learned from his study of
obedience is that
A. people are naturally predisposed to be hostile and aggression
B. even ordinary people, who are not usually hostile, can become agents of destruction
C. the desire to be accepted by others is one of the strongest human motives
D. people value their freedom and react negatively when they feel they are being coerced
to do something
121. Using the Asch procedure, conformity to group judgments would be LEAST likely when
A. participants announce their own answers only after the other group members have done
so
B. participants are not observed by other group members when giving their answers
C. it is very difficult to make correct judgments
D. judgments are made in a group that has more than three people
122. Prejudice is best defined as
A. the tendency to favor members of one’s own group
B. an unjustifiable attitude toward a group and its members
C. a perceived incompatibility of actions or goals
D. the belief that victims of misfortune deserve their fate
123. Over-generalized beliefs about a group of people that often underlie prejudicial emotions
are called
A. discrimination
B. situational attributions
C. stereotypes
D. social norms
124. Prejudice is a (n) ___; discrimination is a (n) _____.
A. disposition attribution; situational attribution
B. ingroup bias; outgroup bias
C. explicit behavior; implicit behavior
D. attitude; behavior
125. Prejudice is most likely to develop as a way of justifying
A. ingroup bias
B. deindividuation
C. the other-race-effect
D. social inequalities
126. The mere exposure effect refers to the fact that people
A. perform well-learned tasks more effectively in the presence of others
B. become more extreme in their opinions following group discussion
C. more readily comply with a large request if they previously complied with a small
request
D. experience increasing attraction to novel stimuli that become more familiar
127. When 12-year-old Jamilah saw an old man lying on the sidewalk, he prepared to offer
help. But when he noticed several adults walk past the man, he concluded that the man did
not need any help. His reaction most clearly illustrates one of the dynamics involved in
A. the mere exposure effect
B. self-disclosure
C. social traps
D. the bystander effect
128. According to social exchange theory, altruistic behavior is guided by
A. calculations of costs and benefits
B. feelings of social responsibility
C. reciprocity norms
D. family ties
129. Freud called his theory of personality and the associated treatment techniques
A. a humanistic perspective
B. terror-management theory
C. projective psychology
D. psychoanalysis
130. According to Freud, thoughts that are too unsettling for people to acknowledge are
A. manifest contents
B. self-serving biases
C. repressed
D. inferiority complexes
131. According to Freud’s theory, the behavior of a newborn is controlled by
A. the reality principle
B. the ego
C. the superego
D. the id
132. Carl Rogers emphasized that a positive self-concept is promoted by
A. sense of control
B. unconditioned positive regard
C. self-actualization
D. peak experiences
133. Which personality theorists have been criticized the most for encouraging individual
selfishness and self-indulgence?
A. behaviorists
B. social cognitive theorists
C. psychoanalytic theorists
D. humanistic theorists
134. Freud emphasized that the ego operates on the _____ principle.
A. pleasure
B. Oedipus
C. reality
D. defensive
135. The pleasure principle is the ____ as the reality principle is to the ____.
A. id; superego
B. id; ego
C. Oedipus complex; Electra complex
D. conscious; unconscious
136. According to Carl Rogers, people nurture our growth by being genuine, accepting, and
A. conscientious
B. consistent
C. extraverted
D. empathic
137. According to Maslow, the desire to fulfill one’s potential is the motivation for
A. personal control
B. self-actualization
C. self-esteem
D. unconditional positive regard
138. An interest in describing and classifying the many ways in which individuals may differ
from one another is most characteristic of the ____ perspective.
A. social-cognitive
B. trait
C. humanistic
D. psychoanalytic
139. Trait theorists would be most likely to highlight the impact of our biologically inherited
_____ on personality.
A. self-esteem
B. locus of control
C. attributional style
D. temperament
140. The Big Five is the term currently used to refer to the basic
A. psychoanalytic stages
B. self-serving biases
C. trait dimensions
D. sensory modalities
141. Which of the following Big Five trait dimensions is most descriptive of an individual
who is organized and disciplined in managing his or her work?
A. extraversion
B. agreeableness
C. conscientiousness
D. openness
142. Dogs strapped into a harness and given repeated and unavoidable shocks developed
A. a fixation
B. autonomic reactivity
C. learned helplessness
D. the false consensus effect
143. Psychiatrists and psychologists are most likely to consider socially unusual behavior as
disordered if it is
A. consciously motivated
B. difficult to change
C. biologically influenced
D. personally distressful
144. The conception of psychological disorders as biologically based sicknesses is known as
A. psychoanalytic theory
B. humanistic perspective
C. medical model
D. biopsychosocial approach
145. To facilitate diagnostic reliability, the DSM-IV-TR typically bases diagnoses on
A. chemical analyses of blood and urine samples
B. physiological measures of blood pressure, perspiration, and muscle tension
C. observable patterns of behavior
D. all of these factors
146. In a study by David Rosenhan, researchers were admitted as patients into various mental
hospitals after they falsely claimed to be “hearing voices.” This study best illustrates the
negative effects of
A. the medical model
B. psychoanalytic theory
C. DSM-IV-TR
D. diagnostic labels
147. Phobias are most likely to be characterized by
A. a persistent, irrational fear of a specific object or situation
B. offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy the person
C. a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system arousal
D. alterations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism
148. An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts and actions is called
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. a phobia
D. panic disorder
149. Repeated distressing dreams and intrusive memories of an intensely fearful and lifethreatening experience are symptoms most commonly associated with
A. panic disorder
B. agoraphobia
C. generalized anxiety disorder
D. post-traumatic stress disorder
150. Two or more distinct identities appear to alternately control the behavior of those with
A. narcissistic personality disorder
B. hypochondriasis
C. conversion disorder
D. dissociative identity disorder
151. A lack of conscience is most characteristic of those who experience ____ disorder.
A. a dissociative
B. antisocial personality
C. conversion
D. somatoform
152. Experiencing physical symptoms, such as blindness or paralysis, that make no
physiological sense is indicative of
A. schizoid personality disorder
B. conversion disorder
C. dissociative disorder
D. anxiety disorder
153. The number one reason people seek mental health services is
A. phobia
B. mania
C. depression
D. bipolar disorder
154. Mania is most likely to be characterized by feelings of
A. guilt
B. fear
C. elation
D. indifference
155. False beliefs of persecution that may accompany schizophrenia are called
A. obsessions
B. compulsions
C. delusions
D. hallucinations
156. The hallucinations experienced by those who suffer from schizophrenia are most likely to
involve ____ things that are not there.
A. seeing
B. hearing
C. tasting
D. smelling
157. Evidence suggest that ___ contribute (s) to schizophrenia.
A. depressed serotonin levels
B. a pessimistic explanatory style
C. conscious role-playing
D. prenatal viral infections
158. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are the ____ of inappropriate behaviors, and
negative symptoms are the ____ of appropriate behaviors.
A. absence; absence
B. presence; presence
C. absence; presence
D. presence; absence
159. Which of the following is considered to be the most nondirective form of therapy?
A. client-centered therapy
B. cognitive therapy
C. psychoanalysis
D. systematic desensitization
160. Repeatedly introducing people to things they fear and avoid is most characteristic of
A. stress inoculation training
B. exposure therapies
C. behavior modification
D. transference
161. The construction of an anxiety hierarchy and training in relaxation are important aspects
of
A. aversive conditioning
B. systematic desensitization
C. interpersonal psychotherapy
D. stress inoculation training
162. Teaching people to stop blaming themselves for failures and negative circumstances
beyond their control is of most direct concern to ____ therapists.
A. psychoanalytic
B. cognitive
C. client-centered
D. behavior
163. Persuading depressed patients to reverse their catastrophizing beliefs about themselves
and their futures is most characteristic of
A. Rogers’ client-centered therapy
B. Beck’s cognitive therapy
C. Wolpe’s exposure therapy
D. Freud’s psychoanalysis
164. The study of the effect of drugs on mind and behavior is called
A. psychosurgery
B. psychobiology
C. ECT
D. psychopharmacology
165. Freud’s techniques and assumptions are most evident in today’s
A. behavior therapies
B. psychodynamic therapies
C. biomedical therapies
D. cognitive therapies
Match the statements with the appropriate psychological perspective:
A. Neuroscience
B. Evolutionary
C. Behavior Genetics
D. Psychodynamic
E. Behavioral
F. Cognitive
G. Social-Cultural
_B_____ By helping each other, we are most likely to survive and reproduce.
_C_____ Identical twins who are separated at birth and raised in very different environments
show the same degree of helpfulness toward others.
_A___ A specific brain region underlies our experience of empathy for persons in distress.
_D_____ Unconscious sexual motivation prompts our willingness to help others.
_F____ We are most likely to help those we perceive as similar to ourselves and whom we
believe deserve our assistance.
_G_____ The willingness of people to help varies greatly across the world’s societies.
_E_____ Children who have been rewarded for helpful behavior are more likely to be helpful in
future interpersonal interactions.